1. What is the guiding principle of inheritance under Mitakshara?
1. Religious efficacy
2. Capacity to perform religious obligations
3. Doctrine of sapinda relationship
4. Capacity to offer religious obligations
A. Mistake
2. Which of the following is not a general defence under Torts?
B. Remoteness
C. Necessity
D. Consent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B Only
2. C Only
3. C and D Only
4. B Only
3. Which of the following is not defined under section 2 of BNS, 2023 and Chapter II of IPC, 1860?
1. Animal
2. Person
3. Child
4. Women
4. Which of the following is not true in the context of CSR?
1. CSR Committee should consist of only one Director.
2. CSR provision was introduced by the Companies Act, 2013.
3. Company should spend atleast 2% of average net profits made during the immediately preceding 3 financial years.
4. CSR is an implied agreement between the company and society to impart goods and services in some way advantageous to the society.
5. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India gave a split verdict on 23th July, 2024 in a matter involving health, environment and intergenerational equity?
1. M.C. Mehta v/s U.O.I
2. Animal Welfare Board of India v/s U.O.I
3. M.K. Ranjitsingh v/s U.O.I
4. Gene Campaign v/s U.O.I
6. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Jurists | LIST-II Definition of Administrative Law | ||
| A | Wade | I. | Administrative Law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organization, powers and duties of administrative authorities. |
| B. | Garner | II. | Main object of administrative law is the operation and control of administrative authorities. |
| C. | Griffith & Street | III. | Rules recognized by the courts as law and which relate to and regulate the administration of government. |
| D. | Ivor Jennings | IV. | Law relating to the control of government power. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
7. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India held that telephone tapping is a serious invasion of an individual’s right to privacy?
1. People’s Union for Civil Liberties v/s Union of India
2. R. Rajagopal v/s State of T.N.
3. Mr. ‘X’ v/s Hospital ‘Z’
4. State of Maharashtra v/s Madhulkar Narain
8. Which of the following Canadian Legislation does not have provisions related to Federation?
1. Law of Federation, 1802
2. British North America Act, 1867
3. Constitution Act, 1982
4. Constitution Act, 1867
9. Which of the following is not a guardian under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956?
A. Guardian for Marriage
B. Maternal Guardian
C. Testamentary Guardian
D. Guardian by Affinity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B Only
2. A Only
3. C and D Only
4. C Only
10. “International law is the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilised states in their relations with one another”. This definition is attributed to whom of the following?
1. Oppenheium
2. J.L. Briely
3. J.G. Starke
4. Jerry Bentham
11. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Type of IPR | LIST-II Concept |
| Geographical Indication | Post grant opposition |
| Trademark | Protection of Right Management Information (RMI) |
| Patent | Prohibition of Assignment |
| Copyright | Honest Concurrent use |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
12. Which of the following theory/theories is/are not closely connected to intellectual property rights?
A. Economic Theory
B. Autopoietic Legal Theory
C. Social Planning Theory
D. Instrumentalist Theory
E. Social Contract Theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C and D Only
2. A and E Only
3. B Only
4. D Only
13. Which of the following is a landmark case on the importance of ‘nationality’?
1. North Sea Continental Self Case
2. Asylum Case
3. S.S. Lotus Case
4. Nottebohm Case
14. Which of the following is not true in the context of a promissory note?
1. It must be in writing and signed by the maker.
2. There must be an undertaking or promise to pay.
3. Such a promise must be conditional.
4. The promise must be in respect of payment of money only.
15. Which of the following provision of the Companies Act, 2013 identifies shares and debentures as a movable property?
1. Section 44
2. Section 45
3. Section 46
4. Section 47
16. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. The first national commission for women was constituted on 31.01.1992
B. National Commission for Backward Classes has been accorded constitutional status through 102nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2018
C. The ministry of Minority Affairs was carved out of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes has been set up under Art. 338
E. Art. 338A deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, C, D Only
2. C, D, E Only
3. A, B, C Only
4. A, C, E Only
17. Arrange the following Conventions in the chronological order of their coming into force.
A. The Biological Weapons Convention
B. The Chemical Weapons Convention
C. The Conventional Weapons Convention
D. The Ottawa Convention on Anti-Personnel Mines
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. C, A, B, D
4. C, D, A, B
18. In which of the following case, the golden rule for framing prospectus was formulated by V.C. Kindersley?
A. Methodist Church v/s Union of India
B. R v/s Registrar of Companies
C. New Brunswick Canada Railway Co. v/s Muggeridge
D. Jubilee Colton Mills Ltd. v/s Lewis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and C Only
2. B Only
3. C Only
4. B and D Only
19. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Jurist | LIST-II Statement/Opinion |
| Montesquie | Comparative Constitution is strange |
| Lee | Used the term – Rechtsvergleichung |
| Rudolph and Schlesinger | Published ‘Ancient Law’ in 1861 |
| Maine | Father of Comparative Law |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
20. Which of the following decisions are related to extradition:
A. Savarkar case
B. Abu Salem case
C. Castioni, re case
D. Meunier, re case
E. Paquete Habana case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C Only
2. B, C, D, E Only
3. A, B, C, D Only
4. A, B, D, E Only
21. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Authors/ Editors | LIST-II Title of Books |
| Rainer Arnold | International Humanitarian Law |
| Vandana Shiva | The Universalism of Human Rights |
| Lenzerini Federico | Biopiracy: The Plunder of Nature & Knowledge |
| Emily Crowford & Alison Pert | The Culturalisation of Human Right Law |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-IV
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
22. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Authors/ Editors | LIST-II Title of books | ||
| A. | J Donhelly & D.J. Whelar | I. | International Human Rights |
| B. | L. Rajanaani & J. Peel | II. | The Oxford Handbook of International Environmental Law |
| C. | Karnika Seth | III. | Computers, Internet and New Technology Laws |
| D. | J. Gibson | IV. | Patenting Lives: Life Patents, Culture & Development |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B-I, C-IV, C-IV, D-III
2. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
23. Arrange the following in order of their enactment (ascending)
A. West German Constitution
B. British North America Act
C. Australian Constitution Act
D. Article of Confederation and Perpetual Union
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
I. D, B, C, A
2. A, B, C, D
3. B, A, C, D
4. D. C, B, A
24. United States Ombudsman Association was founded in which year?
1. 1977
2. 1976
3. 1956
4. 1986
25. Which of the following is not a theory of legal personality?
1. Fiction theory
2. Concession theory
3. Interest theory
4. Bracket theory
26. Which one of the following is incorrect statement in the context of the characteristic features of a Waqf?
1. Waqf properties are inalienable
2. A testamentary Waqf is irrevocable
3. A Waqf once created cannot be revoked
4. A Waqf property vests in God
27. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Judicial Decisions | LIST-II Issue | ||
| A. | State of Gujarat v/s Reliance Industries Ltd & Ors. | I. | Management of sewage treatment plants |
| B. | Municipal Corporation Ghaziabad v/s Central Pollution Control Board | II. | Climate Change |
| C. | Hanuman Laxman Aroskar v/s U.O.I | III. | Environmental Clearance for large. infrastructure project |
| D. | Riddhima Pandey v/s U.O.I | IV. | Green cess |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
4. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
28. Which of the following Article is referred to be the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution?
1. Article 32
2. Article 21
3. Article 14
4. Article 226
29. What are the duties of a bailee as provided under the Indian Contract Act?
A. Duty to take reasonable care of the goods bailed.
B. Duty not to make unauthorized use of the goods.
C. Duty not to mix bailor’s goods with his own goods.
D. Duty to return the goods on fulfilment of the purpose.
E. Duty not to deliver to the bailor increase or profit on the goods bailed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
I. B, C, D, E Only
2. C, D, E, A Only
3. D, E, B, A Only
4. A, B, C, D Only
30. Which of the following is not an absolute privilege under the law of torts?
1. A petition to Parliament
2. Words written or spoken before a Tribunal
3. Communication made in self-protection
4. Communication relating to State matters made by one minister to another
31. The foundation of Federation in India was laid down by which legislation from the following?
1. Government of India Act, 1919
2. Government of India Act, 1935
3. Constitution of India, 1950
4. Queen Proclamation of 1875
32. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Schedules under UCC of Uttrakhand, 2025 | LIST-II Topic dealt under the Schedule | ||
| A. | Schedule 3 | I. | form of probate |
| B. | Schedule 7 | II. | form of certificate |
| C. | Schedule 5 | III. | form of caveat |
| D. | Schedule 4 | IV. | form of certificate and extended certificate |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
33. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Maxim | LIST-II Meaning | ||
| A. | Erga Omnes | I. | Relation to all |
| B. | Jus Cogens | II. | Peremptory norm |
| C. | Pacta Sunt Servanda | III. | Agreements are to be respected |
| D. | Rebus Sic Stantibus | IV. | Essential circumstances remain unchanged |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
34. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Section under the Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2019 | LIST-II Provision | ||
| A. | Section 164 B | I. | Information to be given regarding accident |
| B. | Section 162 | II. | Motor Vehicle Accident Fund |
| C. | Section 164 A | III. | Scheme for golden hour |
| D. | Section 159 | IV. | Scheme for Interim relief for claimants |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
35. Which of the followiing Amendment has inserted the theme ‘Secularism, Socialism and Integrity’ in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
1. 44th Amendment
2. 42nd Amendment
3. 73rd Amendment
4. 74th Amendment
36. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Heirs | LIST-H Succession Categories | ||
| A. | Paternal Aunt’s Son | I. | Class II |
| B. | Daughter’s Son’s daughter | II. | Cognate |
| C. | Paternal Uncle’s daughter | III. | Class I |
| D. | Daughter of a predeceased Son | IV. | Agnate |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
37. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Profounder | LIST-II Idea | ||
| A. | Mimansa | I. | Law and Morals are same |
| B. | Smriti | II. | “Idea of Values” is the foundation |
| C. | Post Reformation Europe | III. | Law derives authority from State and not morals |
| D. | Korknov | IV. | There is distinction between obligatory and recommendatory rules |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
38 Estrada doctrine dealing with recognition of States and Government is primarily related to which country?
1. Spain
2. Mexico
3. Germany
4. China
39. Arrange the following provisions in the correct order of their appearence in the Information Technology Act, 2000 (section-wise)
A. Penalty for misrepresentation
B. Punishment for identify theft
C. Punishment for cyber terrorism
D. Penalty for breach of confidentiality and privacy
E. Punishment for violation of privacy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D, E
2. C, B, A, E, D
3. B, A, C, D, E
4. B, E, C, A, D
40. A Christian Man X and a Hindu Girl Y eloped and entered into an “Agreement of Marriage” on ₹ 50 stamp paper and registered it at Registrar office. They exchanged garland, X tied a Mangalsutra around neck of Y. Is it a valid Marriage?
1. It is a valid marriage as it is registered by agreement
2. It is valid marriage as ceremonies are performed
3. It is not a valid marriage as legal validity test is not complete
4. It is a valid marriage as customary rites of the parties were followed
41. When did Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notify Biological Diversity Rules, 2024?
1. 25th December, 2024
2. 18th January, 2024
3. 1st April, 2024
4. 22nd October, 2024
42. Arrange the following in the order of their introduction in the American Constitution by way of Amendment (ascending order)
A. 18 year old Suffrage
B. Black Suffrage
C. Abolition of Slavery
D. Women Suffrage
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. C, B, D, A
4. A, C, B, D
43. Which section in BNS, 2023 replaced section 124A of IPC, 1860 by prohibiting “acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India”?
1. Section 112
2. Section 152
3. Section 95
4. Section 304
44. Which of the following is not the meaning of the term “dominant position” under the Competition Act, 2002?
1. Position of strength
2. Operating independently of competitive forces
3. Cartel activity among competitors
4. Affect its competitors or consumers in its favour
45. From which country, Part IV of the Indian Constitution is borrowed?
1. Russia
2. Ireland
3. USA
4. Spain
46. Which of the following are correct about “legal theory”?
A. It defines Law
B. It analyses legal concepts
C. It deals with mere theory and has no practical importance
D. It highlights salient features of legal system
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C Only
2. B, C, D Only
3. A, B, D Only
4. A, C, D Only
47. Arrange the following provisions of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 in the order of its appearance in the Act.
A. Inquiry into complaints
B. Procedure with respect to armed forces
C. Investigation
D. Powers relating to inquiry
E. Statements made by person to the Commission
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D, E
2. A, D, E, B, C
3. A, D, C, E, B
4. D, C, E, A, B
48. Which of the following is true about Separation of Power in the Constitution of Canada?
A. Separation exists between only Judiciary and Parliament
B. Separation exists between executive and legislature
C. There is no general separation of power
D. Canadian Constitution has no parallel with Presidentialism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, D Only
2. A, C Only
3. A, B Only
4. C, D Only
49. Which of the following articles incorporate, the expression ‘right to life’?
A. Article 3 of UDHR, 1948
B. Article 6 of ICCPR, 1966
C. Article 9 of ICESCR, 1966
D. Article 3 of OP2 of ICCPR, 1989
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and C Only
2. A and B Only
3. C and D Only
4. B and D Only
50. Who is the writer of the book titled, The Post Modern Condition: A Report on Knowledge”?
1. Michel Foucault
2. Jean-Francois Lyotard
3. Jacques Derrida
4. Jean Baudrillard
51. “True subject matter of ownership in all cases is a right”. Who gave this statement?
1. Grotius
2. Roscoe Pound
3. Salmond
4. Ihering
52. Which of the following statements are incorrect in the context of Adoption?
A. Muslim Law does not recognise adoption.
B. A married Hindu male can adopt a child without obtaining consent of his wife.
C. Child must not have completed the age of fifteen years.
D. Two persons cannot adopt the same child except in case of a husband and wife.
E. A person who is a major and sound mind can only be adopted.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, E Only
2. A, C Only
3. C, D Only
4. D, E Only
53. Seven Legislations are listed under Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Which of the following Act is not included under Schedule I?
1. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
2. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
3. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
4. The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
54. Arrange the following legal instruments chronologically (ascending order)
A. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (India)
B. OP to the CEDAW
C. UN Principles for older Persons
D. UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
E. UN Declaration on Rights of Persons belonging to National, Ethnic, Religious and Linguistic Minorities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, D, C, E
2. C, E, B, D, A
3. C, D, A, E, B
4. D, A, C, B, E
55. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations?
A. The doctrine has an important place in the development of law of judicial review.
B. Doctrine is well established and operated in the domain of public law.
C. Doctrine has been developed both in the context of reasonableness and natural justice.
D. The concept of legitimate expectation made its first appearance in the case of Union of India v/s Hindustan Development Corpn.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, D Only
2. A, B, C Only
3. B, C, D Only
4. A, C, D Only
56. The power of judicial review was first adopted/applied by the Supreme Court of USA in which of the following case?
1. Marbury v/s Madison
2. North Wales Police v/s Evans
3. Minerva v/s State of Georgia
4. Reg v/s Home Secretary
57. Arrange the following cases related to Indian Contract Act in chronological order (ascending)
A. State of Madhya Pradesh v/s Gobardhan Dass
B. New India Assurance Co. v/s Haryana Roadways, Sonipat
C. Chairman-cum-M.D. T.N. Tea Plantation Corp.Ltd v/s M/S Srinivasa Timbers
D. G.S.R.T.0 v/s B. Arunchandra & Co.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. C, D, B, A
4. D, B, A, C
58. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 as unconstitutional?
1. Shreya Singhal v/s U.O.I
2. Ajay Canu v/s U.O.I
3. Tata Cellular v/s U.O.I
4. Supreme Court Bar Association v/s U.O.I
59. On which date the United Nations Organisation came into existence?
1. 20th October. 1945
2. 24th October, 1945
3. 10th December, 1948
4. 10th December, 1945
60. Which of the following Theory/Theories is/are predominantly related to ‘attempt’ in law of crimes.
A. Last seen theory
B. Proximity theory
C. Theory of Impossibility
D. Reformatory Theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and C Only
2. C and D Only
3. B and C Only
4. A and B Only
61. Arrange the following cases on Maintenance in their chronological order (Ascending order)
A. Saira Banu v/s AM Abdul Gafoor
B. Danial Latifi v/s Union of India
C. Noor Saba Khatoon v/s Mohd. Quasim
D. Md. Ahmed Khan v/s Shah Bano Begum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. D, C, A, B
2. C, D, B, A
3. A, B, D, C
4. D, A, C, B
62. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Principles of Natural Justice | LIST-11 Case laws | ||
| A. | Pecuniary Bias | I. | Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v/s A.P. SRTC |
| B. | Personal Bias | II. | Dimes v/s Grand Junction Canal |
| C. | Official Bias | III | Mineral Development Ltd. v/s State of Bihar |
| D. | Judicial Obstinacy | IV. | State of W.B v/s Shivananda Pathak |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
63. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains special provisions for the administration and control of scheduled areas in several states?
1. Fifth
2. Third
3. Seventh
4. Ninth
64. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of standard form contract’s?
A. Notice should not be contemporaneous with the consent.
B. There should be a reasonable notice of the contractual terms.
C. There should be no misrepresentation.
D. The parties are not bound if the terms are contained in a contractual document.
E. The contract with standard terms may be drafted by one party and on the same terms contracts may be made with numerous persons.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, C, E Only
2. A, B, C Only
3. B, C, D Only
4. A, D, C Only
65. Arrange the following in the historical order of development of Natural Law theories (ascending)
A. Union with Divine is end of law
B. Church is the law giver
C. Development of idea of Rationalism
D. Revival of Natural Law
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, A, D
3. D, C, B, A
4. A, C, B, D
66. H and W are married, H filed petition for divorce that was granted in his favour by the family court, when H cannot remarry again?
1. When there is no right of appeal against the decree
2. When the time for appeal has expired
3. When an appeal filed was dismissed
4. When the divorce decree was stayed
67. Mark the incorrect statement as per Muslim Law on Wills.
A. A will of a minor can be ratified by him on attaining majority.
B. The will of a person of unsound mind cannot be ratified on attaining sanity.
C. Will made by a sane person will become invalid if subsequently he becomes insane.
D. A will made by a person who subsequently commits suicide is invalid.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, D, Only
2. B Only
3. C, A Only
4. D Only
68. Which of the following is not true in the context of powers of the President in the Indian Constitution?
A. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of the country.
B. All treaties and international agreements are negotiated and concluded in the name of the President though subject to ratification by the Parliament.
C. President has power to summon and prorogue the Parliament and can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
D. President is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of Parliament under Article 213 of the Indian Constitution.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. D Only
2. B, C Only
3. C Only
4. A, B Only
69. Which one of the following Reports of the Law Commission of India supported/recommended the inclusion of irretrievable breakdown of marriage as a ground for divorce?
1. 73rd Report
2. 72nd Report
3. 71st Report
4. 70th Report
70. Arrange chronologically the following negotiations of GATT between 1947 to 1994 which led to the formation of WTO?
A. Annecy
B. Kennedy Round
C. Tokyo
D. Torquay
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, A, D
3. A, D, B, C
4. C, B, D, A
71. Which of the following case does not relate to the concept of absolute liability under law of India?
1. Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action v/s Union of India
2. Klaus Mittelbachert v/s East India Hotels of India
3. Madras Railway Co v/s Zeminder of Carvatenagram
4. M.C. Mehta v/s Union of India
72. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of US Constitution?
A. Mode of Amendment is given in Article IV
B. 2/3 of both houses can propose Amendments
C. It has to be ratified by 3/4 of state legislature
D. Constitution cannot be amended by Convention
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B Only
2. A and D Only
3. C and D Only
4. B and D Only
73. Arrange the following provisions as per the correct order in the Indian Constitution (Article wise)
A. Failure of Constitutional Machinery in State
B. Proclamation of Emergency
C. Financial Emergency
D. Suspension of Article 19 during emergency
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, A, D, C
2. A, B, C, D
3. B, C, D, A
4. D, A, B, C
74. What is the US equivalent legislation of the Indian Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Freedom of Information Act, 1966
2. Freedom of Information Act, 1954
3. Freedom of Information Act, 1924
4. Freedom of Information Act, 1967
75. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Position of Directors | LIST-11 Case laws | ||
| A. | Directors as ‘Agents’ | I. | Ferguson v/s Wilson |
| B. | Directors as ‘Employees’ | H. | R.R. Kothandraman v/s Commr. of Income Tax |
| C. | Directors as ‘Trustees’ | III. | Great Eastern Rly. Co. v/s Turner |
| D. | Directors in a ‘Fiduciary relationship’ | IV. | Forest of Dean Coal Mining Co. Re |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
76. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Exception to Sec.300 of IPC | LIST-II Exception Number | ||
| A. | Sudden and grave provocation | I. | Exception 5 |
| B. | Exceeding right of private defence | II. | Exception I |
| C. | Death caused in sudden fight | III. | Exception 4 |
| D. | Death caused with the consent of the person | IV. | Exception 2 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
I. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
77. Which of the following are correct about the Rule of Law’?
A. It is derived from French phrase -La principe de legalite”
B. It is called supremacy of law
C. It promotes arbitrary governance
D. Decisions could be made by discretion only
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, C Only
2. C, D Only
3. A, D Only
4. A, B Only
78. Which of the following UN organization addresses the global justice concerns?
1. Trusteeship Council
2. General Assembly
3. International Court of Justice
4. Security Council
79. ‘X’ an insane person kills ‘Y’ by firing from a loaded gun, ‘X’ has committed which of the following offence?
1. No offence at all
2. An offence of grevious hurt
3. An offence of murder
4. An offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
80. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I Term/Doctrine | LIST-II Opinion | ||
| A. | Jus Necessitatis | I. | Collective term for intention and recklessness |
| B. | Malice | II. | Two forms of Mensrea |
| C. | Dolus and Culpa | III. | Two alternative conditions of Penal Liability |
| D. | Intention and Negligence | IV. | Right of the man to do from which he cannot be dissuaded |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
81. Which of the following are characteristic of ‘Legal Right’?
A. Rights are vested in person and not against a person
B. Rights are act or omission in favour of person entitled
C. Act or omission relates to a thing
D. Every legal right has a title
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
I. B, C, D Only
2. A, C, D Only
3. A, B, C Only
4. A. B, D Only
82. Which of the Article of the Geneva Conventions of 1949 is called ‘mini convention within the conventions’?
1. Article 2
2. Article 3
3. Article 4
4. Article 5
83. Arrange the following as per the correct order in the Indian Constitution (Article-wise)
A. Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court
B. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
C. Legislative power of Governor
D. Transfer of a judge from one High Court to another
E. Jurisdiction of existing High Courts
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D, E
2. E, D, C, B, A
3. D, C, B, A, E
4. E, C, D, B, A
84. Which of the following provision of the Partnership Act explains the evidentiary value of entries in the Register of Firms?
1. Section 65
2. Section 66
3. Section 67
4. Section 68
85. Arrange the following cases on Gift under Muslim Law in chronological order (Ascending)
A. MaqboolAlam v/s Khadajia
B. Khurshida Begum v/s Komammad Farooq
C. Abdul Rahim v/s Abdul Zabar
D. Valie v/s Puthakkalam
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C, B, D, A
2. D, A, C, B
3. B, C, A, D
4. A, D, B, C
86. Arrange the following in the order in which they appears in the Indian Contract Act.
A. Agreement by way of Wager
B. Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings
C. Agreement in restraint of trade
D. Agreement of restraint of marriage
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. D, C, B, A
4. C, D, A, B
87. In which of the following case, the apex court of India issued fourteen directions to the Union and State Government to ensure complete eradication of manual scavenging and hazardous cleaning?
1. Anoop Baranwal v/s U.O.I
2. Govt. of NCT of Delhi v/s U.O.I
3. Adivasis for Social and Human Rights Action v/s U.O.I
4. Dr. Balram Singh v/s U.O.I
88. What does ‘injury’ mean under section 44 of IPC, 1860 and Section 2 (14) of BNS, 2023?
1. Any harm illegally caused to a person in body and mind
2. Any harm illegally caused to a person in body and property
3. Any harm illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property
4. Any harm illegally caused to a person in body, mind and reputation
89. Which of the following rules are related with ‘nulla poena sine lege’?
A. Retroactivity of Penal Laws.
B. Strict Construction
C. Certainty in Legislation
D. Accessibility of the law
E. Liberal Interpretation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C, D, E Only
2. A, B, E Only
3. A, D, E Only
4. B, C, D Only
90. Arrange the following provisions pertaining to procedure of granting patent (section-wise) in its correct sequence.
A. Time for putting application in order for grant
B. Request for examination
C. Publication of application
D. Priority date of claims of a complete specification
E. Mention of inventor as such in patent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. D, C, B, A, E
2. B, C, D, A, E
3. E, A, D, C, B
4. A, E, B, C, D
Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Under English Law, ‘Transsexual’ cannot marry a partner of his or her original sex because sex was declared at birth and could not be changed by artificial intervention. Marriage could be entered into by one man and women only. In 2002, European Court of Human Rights declared that United Kingdom was in breach of Articles 8 and 12 of European Convention for failing to recognize transsexual’s new gender. House of Lords declared in case of Bellinger v/s Bellinger that S 11 (c) of Matrimonial Causes Act, 1973 was incompatible with the Convention. The Legislature addressed this situation with Gender Recognition Act, 2004. This provided that transsexual over the age of 18 fulfilling medical criterion, living in other gender, or have changed their gender under law of an approved country can apply for gender recognition certificate. This will provide legal status necessary for acquired gender to marry a partner of transsexual’s former sex. However, where the respondent was person of acquired gender prior to marriage, such a marriage is still voidable.
91. Gender Recognition Act came up in which year?
1.2002
2.2003
3.1994
4.2004
92. Which section of Matrimonial causes Act 1973 was incompatible with
European Convention?
1. 11 (c)
2. 12 (a)
3. 11 (g)
4. 1 (c)
93. Failing to recognise new gender of a transsexual is contravention of which Articles of European Convention?
1. Article 8 and 12
2. Article 9 and 11
3. Article 1 and 2
4. Article 11 and 8
94. Which document provided legal status to acquired gender?
1. Order of Court
2. Declaration by Crown
3. Regulation 1 of European Convention
4. Gender Recognition Certificate
95. Which is not correct about the traditional notion ‘transsexuals’?
1. Under traditional notion, transsexual enjoyed full legal status.
2. They could not marry a partner of their original sex.
3. Sex could not be changed by artificial intervension.
4. Marriage was valid between one man and one women only.
Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Moral rights first became part of the international system with their inclusion in the Berne Convention, which was established during the 1928 revision conference in Rome. The text has been subject to amendment only twice in 1948, at the Brussels revision conference of the Berne Convention, and again, at the landmark Stockholm conference of 1967. It is telling that the amendments did not introduce substantial change into the provisions, unless it was to reduce their scope. Their focus, rather was on clarifying limitations on moral rights which previous generations of negotiators may well have taken for granted as built into the system.
96. What is not correct about Rome Revision Conference, 1928?
1. It incorporated moral rights into Berne Convention
2. The text on moral rights introduced by 1928 Revision has never undergone any amendments
3. The focus on stockholm conference was not to nullify the moral rights introduced by Rome Conference
4. The Brussels Revision Conference brought first amendment to the text of moral rights inserted by Rome Conference
97. Which of the following brought clarification on limitation on moral rights?
1. Rome Conference
2. Brussels Revision Conference alone
3. Both Brussels Revision Conference and Stockholm Conference
4. Stockholm Conference alone
98. Which is true about moral rights?
1. The 1948 and 1967 amendments enlarged the scope of moral rights
2. The Brussels revision conference and the stockholm conference clarified limitations on moral rights
3. The Brussels and Stockholm amendments brought substantial changes in the realm of moral rights
4. The original Berne convention text itself carried provisions on moral rights
99. Which international legal instrument incorporate the provision for protection of moral rights?
1. Stockholm Convention
2. Brussels Convention
3. Berne Convention
4. Rome Convention
100. In which year ‘moral rights’ were first introduced into the international system?
1. 1967
2. 1928
3. 1886
4. 1948
Answer Key
| 1 | [3] | 26 | [2] | 51 | [3] | 76 | [2] |
| 2 | [4] | 27 | [3] | 52 | [1] | 77 | [4] |
| 3 | [3] | 28 | [1] | 53 | [4] | 78 | [2] |
| 4 | [1] | 29 | [4] | 54 | [2] | 79 | [1] |
| 5 | [4] | 30 | [3] | 55 | [2] | 80 | [1] |
| 6 | [4] | 31 | [1] | 56 | [1] | 81 | [4] |
| 7 | [1] | 32 | [1] | 57 | [1] | 82 | [3] |
| 8 | [1] | 33 | [3] | 58 | [1] | 83 | [1] |
| 9 | [2] | 34 | [4] | 59 | [2] | 84 | [1] |
| 10 | [2] | 35 | [2] | 60 | [4] | 85 | [1] |
| 11 | [2] | 36 | [2] | 61 | [4] | 86 | [3] |
| 12 | [3] | 37 | [1] | 62 | [2] | 87 | [3] |
| 13 | [4] | 38 | [2] | 63 | [1] | 88 | [3] |
| 14 | [3] | 39 | [4] | 64 | [1] | 89 | [3] |
| 15 | [1] | 40 | [3] | 65 | [1] | 90 | [4] |
| 16 | [3] | 41 | [4] | 66 | [4] | 91 | [4] |
| 17 | [2] | 42 | [3] | 67 | [4] | 92 | [1] |
| 18 | [3] | 43 | [2] | 68 | [1] | 93 | [1] |
| 19 | [4] | 44 | [3] | 69 | [3] | 94 | [4] |
| 20 | [3] | 45 | [2] | 70 | [3] | 95 | [1] |
| 21 | [1] | 46 | [3] | 71 | [2] | 96 | [2] |
| 22 | [3] | 47 | [4] | 72 | [2] | 97 | [3] |
| 23 | [1] | 48 | [2] | 73 | [1] | 98 | [2] |
| 24 | [1] | 49 | [2] | 74 | [4] | 99 | [3] |
| 25 | [3] | 50 | [2] | 75 | [3] | 100 | [2] |
Disclaimer: The responses are derived from the provisional answer key and may be altered, as the final official answer key has not yet been published by the NTA.
